Alright, one more question. Yes, I know this says precalculus, but I was looking at this video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cADQ4Wk4wFc
and understood everything except for why the middle factor at 7:15 has a power of 1. Is it because of the variable's implied power of 1, or because any term/factor in math that doesn't show an exponent has an implied power of 1 like lone variables? Thanks to wonderful SEO searching for this only brought up basic exponent rules, and I had to end up asking a couple of LLMs that said so, but we know how reliable they can be. Is this true, only true in certain cases, or just not? I can see this being true, since I don't think that would contradict the implied x⁰ because of the power of a power law.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cADQ4Wk4wFc
Feb 06 · 3 months ago
2 Comments ↓
👻 darkghost · Feb 06 at 21:02:
x⁰ will always be 1 for any value of x.
Yes, any case where no exponent is provided is actually that too the power of 1. The same way writing x has the same meaning as 1x¹.
🗡️ The_Jackal [OP] · Feb 06 at 21:35:
@darkghost Thank you. I used startpage, but I doubt the other engines would have done any better. It seemed like no matter how I typed it, it only brought up exponent rules and no matter what I looked at they never mentioned this, so I guess this is a case where an LLM actually came in handy. I did come to the conclusion that has to be the case after seeing that when I couldn't find the info though, it made sense.